CBT
Computer-based test CBT is the part 1 test of competence of United Kingdom Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC) for nurses and midwives trained outside of the European Union (EU)/ European Economic Area (EEA) to get registration for working in the UK health sector. NMC CBT is a multiple-choice test of theoretical practice-based knowledge done at a Pearson VUE test centre available in most of the countries around the world.
Domains tested in the nursing CBT
Nursing in the UK is organised around specific and distinct professional fields of practice. The individual is usually registered in a single specialist field and has undertaken three years of pre-registration education and training in their specific field.
These fields are:
- Adult nursing
- Children’s nursing
- Learning disabilities nursing
- Mental health nursing
Each of these fields is specifically tested by a distinct CBT and candidates will only sit the CBT for the professional field of practice in which they are seeking UK registration.
The standards for competence which identify the knowledge, skills and attitudes required for entry to each field of nursing are organised around four generic nursing domains. Each of these domains is represented proportionally in the CBT.
The nursing CBT is made up of 120 multiple-choice questions. These questions must be completed in a maximum of four hours.
- 50 questions will relate to generic nursing found in each domain of nursing.
- 50 questions will be the application of generic nursing bases on the filed the applicant applied to
- 20 questions will focus solely on the specific competencies required for the field of nursing being applied for.
- There are 20 critical questions within the exam which focus on patient or public safety.
Passing score
The decision, a candidate passes or fails the CBT is determined by both critical questions and an overall pass mark. A candidate must answer 90 per cent of critical questions correctly. The overall pass score is set as 60 per cent. This is the benchmark for nurses and midwives for the entry to the UK register.
To enrol for this program, you need to send your C V
- IELTS / OET Result (if passed)
- Copy of your B.Sc / Diploma in Nursing (Image Format)
Candidate rules
The following items are not allowed in the examination room nor can they be accessed during any break from testing.
- Any educational, test preparation or study materials.
- Weapons of any kind.
- Personal items, including mobile phones, hand-held computers, personal digital assistants (PDAs), pagers, watches or other electronic devices are not allowed in the testing room. You must store all personal items in the locker allocated to you. Mobile phones, pagers or other electronic devices must be turned off before storing them in the locker
- The following personal items are not also allowed in the testing room and must also be stored in the locker provided. Bags, purses, wallets, watches or smartwatches. Coats, hats (or other head coverings), scarves, gloves or other personal items. Books or notes Food, drink, gum or candy Lip balm.
- Medical devices/aids. (If these are essential then please inform us during the application process.) If you require access to medical devices and/or medication during the CBT, you must inform Pearson VUE when booking your exam. Please also notify the TA at the test centre on the day of your exam.
- The test centre is not responsible for lost, stolen or misplaced personal items. During any break from testing, you are not allowed to access personal items other than medication or food which are required at a specific time and you must get approval from the test administrator.
Please choose the most appropriate answers.
- 1. What is the purpose of The Code?
- It outlines specific tasks or clinical procedures
- It ascertains in detail a nurse’s or midwife’s clinical expertise
- It is a tool for educating prospective nurses and midwives
- 2. When do you gain consent from a patient and consider it valid?
- Only if a patient has the mental capacity to give consent
- Only before a clinical procedure
- None of the above
- 3. At what stage of the nursing process does the revision of the care plan occur?
- Assessment
- Planning
- Implementation
- Evaluation
- 4. You can delegate medication administration to a student if:
- The student was assessed as competent
- Only under close, direct supervision
- The patient has only oral medication
- 5. A patient recently admitted to hospital, requesting to self administer the medication, has been assessed for suitability at Level 2. This means that:
- The registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products and the supervision of the administration process ensuring the patient understands the medicinal product being administered
- The patient accepts full responsibility for the storage and administration of the medicinal products
- None of the above the registrant is responsible for the safe storage of the medicinal products. At administration time, the patient will ask the registrant to open the cabinet or locker. The patient will then self-administer the medication under the supervision of the registrant.
- 6. In a patient with hourly monitoring, when does a nurse formally document the monitoring?
- Every hour
- When there are significant changes to the patient’s condition
- At the end of the shift
- 7. What is primary care?
- The Accident and Emergency Room
- GP practices, dental practices, community pharmacies and high street optometrists
- First aid provided on the street
- 8. Compassion in Practice – the culture of compassionate care encompasses:
- Care, Compassion, Competence, Communication, Courage, Commitment – DoH –“Compassion in Practice”
- Care, Compassion, Competence
- Competence, Communication, Courage
- Care, Courage, Commitment
- 9. Independent Advocacy is:
- Providing general advice
- Making decisions for someone
- Care and support work
- Agreeing with everything a person says and doing anything a person asks you to do
- None of the above- Local authorities must involve people in decisions made about them and their care and support. An independent advocate must be appointed to support and represent the person for the purpose of assisting their involvement in one or more of the following processes described in the Care Act: a needs assessment · a carer’s assessment · the preparation of a care and support or support plan · a review of a care and support or support plan · a child’s needs assessment · a child’s carer’s assessment · a young carer’s assessment · a safeguarding enquiry · a safeguarding adult review · an appeal against a local authority decision
- 10. Which of the following are not signs of a speed shock?
- Flushed face
- Headache and dizziness
- Tachycardia and fall in blood pressure
- Peripheral oedema
- 11. Recommended preoperative fasting times are:
- 2-4 hours
- 6-12 hours
- 12-14 hours
- 12. What infection control steps should not be taken in a patient with diarrhoea caused by Clostridium Difficile?
- Isolation of the patient
- All staff must wear aprons and gloves while attending the patient
- All staff will be required to wash their hands before and after contact with the patient, their bed linen and soiled items
- Oral administration of metronidazole, vancomycin, fidaxomicin may be required
- None of the above
- 13. Hospital discharge planning for a patient should start:
- When the patient is medically fit
- On the admission assessment
- When transport is available
- 14. A patient is assessed as lacking capacity to give consent if they are unable to:
- understand information about the decision and remember that information
- use that information to make a decision
- communicate their decision by talking, using sign language or by any other means
- 15. Examples of offensive/hygiene waste which may be sent for energy recovery at energy from waste facilities can include:
- Stoma or catheter bags – The Management of Waste from health, social and personal care -RCN
- Unused non-cytotoxic/cytostatic medicines in original packaging
- Used sharps from treatment using cytotoxic or cytostatic medicines
- Empty medicine bottles
- 16. It is unsafe for a spinal tap to be undertaken if the patient:
- Has bacterial meningitis
- Papilloedema
- Intracranial mass is suspected
- Site skin infection
- 17. The use of an alcohol-based hand rub for decontamination of hands before and after direct patient contact and clinical care is recommended when:
- Hands are visibly soiled
- Caring for patients with vomiting or diarrhoeal illness, regardless of whether or not gloves have been worn
- Immediately after contact with body fluids, mucous membranes and non-intact skin
- 18. Adequate record-keeping for a medical device should provide evidence of:
- A unique identifier for the device, where appropriate
- A full history, including date of purchase and where appropriate when it wasput into use, deployed or installed
- Any specific legal requirements and whether these have been met
- Proper installation and where it was deployed
- Schedule and details of maintenance and repairs
- The end-of-life date, if specified
- 19. The overall risk of malnutrition of 2 or higher signifies:
- Low risk of malnutrition
- Medium risk of malnutrition
- High risk of malnutrition
- 20. If you witness or suspect there is a risk to the safety of people in your care and you consider that there is an immediate risk of harm, you should:
- Report your concerns immediately, in writing to the appropriate person – Escalating concerns NMC
- Report the event to the NMC
- Ask for advice from your professional body if unsure about what actions to take
- Protect client confidentiality.
- Refer to your employer’s whistleblowing policy.
- Keep an accurate record of your concerns and action taken
- 21. In DVT TEDS stockings affect circulation by:
- increasing blood flow velocity in the legs by compression of the deep venous system-thromboembolism-deterrent hose
- decreasing blood flow velocity in legs by compression of the deep venous system
- 22. What medications would most likely increase the risk for fall?
- Loop diuretic
- Hypnotics
- Beta-blockers
- NSAIDs
- 23. The signs and symptoms of ectopic pregnancy except:
- Vaginal bleeding
- Positive pregnancy test
- Shoulder tip pain
- Protein excretion exceeds 2 g/day
- 24. Causes of diarrhoea in Clostridium Difficile are:
- Ulcerative colitis- Ulcerative Colitis is a condition that causes inflammation and ulceration of the inner lining of the rectum and colon
- Hashimoto’s disease- Hashimoto’s disease, also called chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis or autoimmune thyroiditis is an autoimmune disease
- Crohn’s disease – Crohn’s Disease is one of the two main forms of Inflammatory Bowel Disease, so may also be called ‘IBD’. The other main form of IBD is a condition known as Ulcerative Colitis
- Pseudomembranous colitis -pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) is acute, exudative colitis usually caused by clostridium difficile. PMC can rarely be caused by other bacteria,
- 25. The patient usually urinates at night Nurse identifies this as:
- Polyuria
- Oliguria
- Nocturia
- Dysuria
- 26. What do you expect to manifest with fluid volume deficit?
- Low pulse, Low Bp
- High pulse, High BP
- High Pulse, low BP
- Low Pulse, high BP
- 27. Wound care management plan should be done with what type of wound?
- Complex wound
- Infected wound
- Any type of wound
- 28. Proper Dressing for wound care should be?
- High humidity
- Low humidity
- Non-Permeable
- Conformable
- Adherent
- Absorbent
- Provide thermal insulation
- 29. Does wound proliferation start after?
- 1-5 days
- 3-24 days
- 24 days
- 30. Barrier Nursing for C.diff patient what should you not do?
- Use of hand gel/ alcohol rub
- Use gloves
- The patient has his own set of washers
- Strict disinfection of pt’s room after isolation
- 31. What position should you prepare the patient in preop for abdominal Paracentesis?
- Supine
- Supine with the head of the bed elevated to 40-50cm
- Prone
- Side-lying
- 32. Lumbar post-op patient moving and handling
- Move the patient as a unit
- Move the patient close to side rails so he/she could assist herself
- Move with leg raised/flexed
- 33. What is not a sign of meconium aspiration?
- Floppy in appearance
- Apnoea
- Crying
- 34. You are monitoring a patient in the ICU when suddenly his consciousness drops and the size of one his pupil becomes smaller what should you do?
- Call the doctor
- Refer to the neurology team
- Continue to monitor the patient using GCS and record
- Consider this as an emergency and prioritize ABC
- 35. A suicidal Patient is admitted to a psychiatric facility for 3 days when suddenly he is showing signs of cheerfulness and motivation. The nurse should see this as:
- That treatment and medication is working
- She has made new friends
- That she has finalized the suicide plan
- 36. The patient is post-op liver biopsy which is a sign of serious complication
- CR of 104, RR=24, Temp of 37.5
- Nausea and vomiting
- Pain
- Bleeding
- 37. The patient has the next dose of Digoxin but has a CR=58
- Omit dose, record why, and inform the doctor
- Give dose and tell the doctor
- Give the dose as prescribed
- 38. The patient is in for oxygen therapy
- A prescription is required including route, method and how long
- No prescription is required unless he will use it at home.
- Prescription not required for oxygen therapy
- 39. The patient is a post of repair of tibia and fibula possible signs of the compartment syndrome include
- Numbness and tingling
- Cool dusky toes
- Pain
- Toes swelling
- 40. The doctor prescribes a dose of 9 mg of an anticoagulant for a patient being treated for thrombosis. The drug is being supplied in 3mg tablets. How many tablets should you administer?
- 3 tablets
- 5 tablets
- 6 tablets
- 41. The doctor prescribes 25mg of a drug to be given by injection. It is a drug dispensed in a solution of strength 50mg/ml. How many ml should you administer?
- 2ml
- 5 ml
- 5 ml – Dose Prescribed: Dose /ml – 25:50=0.5
- 42. A doctor prescribes an injection of 200 micrograms of drug. The stock bottle contains 1mg/ml. How many ml will you administer?
- 20ml
- 2 ml
- 2 ml 2 dose values must be in the same unit 1mg=1000mcg , 200mcg=0.2mg then dose prescribed:dose/ml – 0.2:1=0.2
- 43. In interpreting ECG results there is clear evidence of atrial disruption this is interpreted as
- Cardiac Arrest
- Ventricular tach
- Atrial Fibrillation
- Complete blockage of the heart
- 44. Enteral feeding patient checks patency of tube placement by:
- Pulling on the tube and then pushing it back in place
- Aspirating gastric juice and then checking for ph <4
- Infusing water or air and listening for gurgles
- X-ray
- 45. Hypoglycaemia in patients with diabetes is more likely to occur when the patients take:
- Insulin
- Sulphonylureas
- Prandial glucose regulators
- Metformin
- 46. Common signs and symptoms of hypoglycaemia exclude:
- Feeling hungry
- Sweating
- Ketoacidosis
- Anxiety or irritability
- Blurred vision
- 47. Common causes for hyperglycaemia include:
- Not eating enough protein
- Eating too much carbohydrate
- Over-treating a hypoglycaemia
- Stress
- Infection (for example, colds, bronchitis, flu, vomiting, diarrhoea, urinary infections, and skin infections)
.
- 48. Safeguarding is the responsibility of:
- health care assistants
- registered nurses
- doctors
- all of the above
- 49. The nurse is teaching the patient about crutch walking which is correct?
- Take long strides
- Take small strides
- Instruct to put weight on hands
- 50. What advice do you need to give to a patient taking Allopurinol?
- Drink 8 to 10 full glasses of fluid every day, unless your doctor tells you otherwise.
- Store Allopurinol at room temperature away from moisture and heat.
- Avoid being near people who are sick or have infections
- Skin rash is a common side effect, it will pass after a few days
- 51. Normal heart rate for 1 to 2 years old?
- 80 – 140 beats per minute
- 80 – 110 beats per minute
- 75 – 115 beats per minute
- 52. Waterlow score of 20 indicates what type of mattress to use?
- Standard-specification foam mattresses
- High-specification foam mattresses
- Dynamic support surface
- 53. In the News observation system, what is AVUP?
- A replacement for GCS
- An assessment for confusion
- Assessment for the level of consciousness
- 54. Which bag do you place infected linen?
- water-soluble alginate polythene bag before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full
- orange waste bag, before being placed in the appropriate linen bag, no more than ¾ full
- white linen bag, after sorting, no more than ¾ full
- 55. Under the Yellow Card Scheme you must report the following:
- Faulty brakes on a wheelchair
- Suspected side effects to blood factor, except immunoglobulin products
- Counterfeit or fake medicines or medical devices
- 56. Which one of these notifiable diseases needs to be reported on a national level?
- Chickenpox
- Tuberculosis
- Whooping cough
- Influenza
- 57. The patient developed elevated temperature and pain in the loin during a blood transfusion. This is indicative of:
- Severe blood transfusion reaction
- Common blood transfusion reaction
- 58. The worst advice you can give a student nurse with regards to the use of social networking sites like Facebook?
- Do not identify yourself as a nurse
- Do not engage in a personal discussion or relationship with a patient or former patient
- Do not post a picture of a patient’s child even if they allow you to
- Rely on the sites privacy settings
- 59. What is the best position in applying eye medications?
- Sitting position with head tilt to the right
- Sitting position with head tilt backwards
- The prone position with head tilt to the left
- 60. Prothrombin time is essential during anticoagulation therapy. In oral anticoagulation therapy which test is essential?
- Activated Thromboplastin Time – The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is a blood test that is done to investigate bleeding disorders and to monitor patients taking an anticlotting drug (heparin).
- International Normalized Ratio – The Prothrombin time (PT) test, standardised as the INR test is most often used to check how well anticoagulant tablets such as warfarin and phenindione are working
- 61. Conditions producing orthostatic hypotension in the elderly:
- Aortic stenosis
- Arrhythmias
- Diabetes
- Pernicious anaemia
- Advanced heart failure
- 62. The degree of injection when giving subcutaneous insulin injection on a site where you can grasp 1 inch of tissue?
- 45degrees
- 40degrees
- 25degrees
- 63. A patient suffered from a stroke and is unable to read and write. This is called
- Dysphasia
- Dysphagia
- Partial aphasia
- Aphasia
- 64. Most commonly aneurysms can develop on?
- Abdominal aorta
- Circle of Willis
- Intraparenchymal aneurysms
- Capillary aneurysms
- 65. Which of the following is at a greater risk for developing coronary artery disease?
- Male, obese, sedentary lifestyle
- Female, obese, non-sedentary lifestyle
- 66. On the assessment of the abdomen of a patient with peritonitis you would expect to find:
- Rebound tenderness and guarding
- Hyperactive, high-pitched bowel sounds and a firm abdomen
- A soft abdomen with bowel sounds every 2 to 3 seconds
- Ascites and increased vascular pattern on the skin
- 67. Patients with gastric ulcers typically exhibit the following symptoms:
- Epigastric pain worsens before meals, pain awakening patient from sleep a melena
- Decreased bowel sounds, rigid abdomen, rebound tenderness, and fever
- Boring epigastric pain radiating to back and left shoulder, bluish-grey discolouration of periumbilical area and ascites
- Epigastric pains worsen after eating and weight loss
- 68. Patients with gastrointestinal bleeding may experience acute or chronic blood loss. Your patient is experiencing hematochezia. You recognise this by:
- Red or maroon- coloured stool rectally
- Coffee ground emesis
- Black, tarry stool
- Vomiting of bright red or maroon blood
- 69. On physical examination of a 16-year-old female patient, you notice partial erosion of her tooth enamel and callus formation on the posterior aspect of the knuckles of her hand. This is indicative of:
- Self-induced vomiting and she likely has bulimia nervosa
- A genetic disorder and her siblings should also be tested
- Self-mutilation and correlates with anxiety
- A connective tissue disorder and she should be referred to dermatology
- 70. In a community hospital, an elderly man approaches you and tells you that his neighbour has been stealing his money, saying “sometimes I give him money to buy groceries but he didn’t buy groceries and he kept the money” what is your best course of action for this?
- Raise a safeguarding alert
- Just listen but don’t do anything
- Ignore the old man, he is just having delusions
- Refer the old man to the community clergy who is giving him spiritual support